My society isn’t officially registered. Mr. A owned a flat here, which he sold to Mr. B and Mr. C in 1992. They used a stamp paper worth ₹2,000 for the agreement, but it wasn’t registered. The sale price was ₹2,00,000. Later, Mr. C sold his share back to Mr. B in 2000, using a ₹20 stamp paper for a price of ₹1.5 lakh. Now, Mr. B wants me to issue bills from June 2016 in his name. Since both these sales weren’t registered, is it safe to issue bills in Mr. B’s name?
Best Answer
Since the original sale and subsequent resale were not registered, the legal ownership of the flat is unclear. Issuing bills in Mr. B’s name carries a significant risk as it could be challenged in court due to the lack of legal proof of his ownership. You should consult a lawyer to understand the legal implications and ensure you are complying with tax laws.
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