Apni Law Staff asked 2 years ago
The abolition of Inams in India seems to have only transferred land revenue rights to the government, leaving the land itself with the Inamdars, tenants, or laborers. Before we delve further, we have a few questions:
1. Did the Inam Abolition Act apply to all types of Inams, including permanent, personal, and temple trust Inams?
2. If Inams were abolished in the 1950s, how are Inamdar rights still upheld in court disputes today? A family friend recently won a case based on this.
3. I know that Form 8A lists all land ownership in a village. Is there a separate register specifically for Inam lands, or is it included in Form 8A or 7/12?
Thank you for your insights.
Best Answer
Apni Law Staff answered 2 years ago
The Inam Abolition Acts varied across states, but generally aimed to abolish the revenue-free land grants known as Inams. While ownership of the land itself usually remained with the Inamdars, the revenue rights were transferred to the government. The existence of Inamdar rights today likely reflects the complexity of state-specific legislation and the continued validity of land titles based on pre-abolition laws, which may be subject to legal interpretation and dispute resolution. Information regarding Inams may be included in land records like Form 8A or 7/12, but specific details might vary across states.
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